CCNA Exploration 1 - FINAL Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access  

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254 

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address. 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media. 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2 30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password arj15

Router(config-line)# login
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)# 44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

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CCNA3 FINAL

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied

to the switch?


Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254


Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254



==> Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254


Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

==> 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.




3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
==> All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4

Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
==> SSID

OFDM

WEP

DSSS

5

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.

==> SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.

SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS
routing
==> trunking
VPN

7

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
==> S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
==> S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
==> This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
==> This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9


Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
==> S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
==> Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
==> Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
==> The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

==> forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3


add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table

forward the frame out Interface3


discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces

forward the frame out Interface2
14

Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

==> It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
==> It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15


Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
==> 192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
==> SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
==> A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
==> An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
==> computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

==> The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
==> Cat-C
Cat-D
21
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
==> VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.

==> Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.

This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23

Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
==> requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
==> more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
==> can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?


The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
==> The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
==> S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
==> S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

==> The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
==> Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28

What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
==> reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
==> increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
==> simplification of management and troubleshooting
29
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
==> Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
==> A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
==> The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of ==> SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
==> Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32

Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
==> All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
==> The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
==> All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
==> After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
==> If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

34

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
==> The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
==> Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
==> Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36

What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
==> Select the correct VTP mode and version.
==> Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
==> Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37


Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
==> only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
==> The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.


39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
==> This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
==> Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

==> The switch ports are on different VLANs.

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
==> The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
==> A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
==> switch F
42
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
==> switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43
Top of Form
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
==> BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
==> Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
==> force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
==> Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs .


47

Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
==> BSSID
ESSID

48


Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
==> The incoming frames will be dropped.
The security violation count will be incremented.
49
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
==> transparent

50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
==> From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51
Top of Form
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
==> The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52


What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
==> provides improved range
==> permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

Read more »

CCNA 3 final test

1


Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0



2


Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?

*** SC

CE

JB

JP

JN

cannot be determined from the information given

3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?

VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.

*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.

It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.

It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.

It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.


4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)

*** to prevent routing information from being falsified

to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead

to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates

to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing

*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source


5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?

VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.

VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.

*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.


6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?

physical

distribution

data link

*** access

core


7


Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)

RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.


8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.

*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.


9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.

RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.

The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.

*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.

*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.

RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.


10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

access

backbone

*** distribution

core


11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)

*** a classless routing protocol

a classful routing protocol

*** OSPF

IGRP

RIP v1


12


Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?

*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.

The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.

The switch is participating in an election process.

The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.


13


Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0

*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1

RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0


14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?

switch

bridge

*** router

active hub


15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host

requires a minimum of two wires

*** reduces the number of collisions

allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions

*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions

increases the number of broadcast domains


16


Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.

One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.

*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.


17


The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

Configure the hostname on Switch2.

*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.

Set the management VLAN password.

*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.

*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.


18


Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0


19


Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?

192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30

192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30

192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30

192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30

*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30


20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)

Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.

Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.

*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.

*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.

After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.

*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.


21


Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1

*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04


22
The following command was added to a router's configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)

A default route will be created.

*** A static route will be created.

*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.

All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.

The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.


23


Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?

physical

data link

core

access

network

*** distribution


24


Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?

show vlan ifindex

show vlan id

*** show vlan brief

show running-config


25


Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q


26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?

by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers

by comparing known routes to received updates

*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports


27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch

use a router to locate a default gateway

*** elect a root bridge

determine the path cost of each active port on the switch


28


Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1


29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

*** store-and-forward


30


Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0


31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.

The switch is in the process of initializing ports.

The switch has failed POST.

*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.


32


Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address

highest priority number

highest path cost

lowest Layer 2 address

*** lowest priority number

lowest path cost


33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs

*** replace hubs with switches

replace hubs with access points

add a router to every hub segment


34


One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.


35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

*** hop count as a metric

classless routing

*** use split horizon

*** maximum hop count is 15

broadcast updates

no authentication


36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

*** the network number

subnet mask

*** wildcard mask

process number

area ID

*** autonomous system number


37


Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.

*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.

The router is not configured for trunking.

The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.


38


Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value

*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value


39


Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2


40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.

They can support only link-state protocols.

They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.


41


A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5

line vty 0 4
telnet

telnet Corporate

*** telnet 172.16.15.5


42


What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure

provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem

provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging

provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers


43


What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access

channel

interVLAN

intraVLAN

*** trunk


44


Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

*** duplicate IP address

mismatched OSPF process IDs

mismatched OSPF timers

mismatched clock rates


45


Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.

*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.

Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.

No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.


46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies

*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies

can only be used in networks where routers are installed

*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design

can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used


47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192

*** 192.168.3.209

192.168.3.223

192.168.3.225

192.168.3.235


48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown


49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached

when a router has less than five active interfaces


50


Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links

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CCNA all answer ~100/100

CCNA1 Chapter 1 CCNA1 Chapter 10 CCNA1 Chapter 11 CCNA1 Chapter 2 CCNA1 Chapter 3 CCNA1 Chapter 4 CCNA1 Chapter 5 CCNA1 Chapter 6 CCNA1 Chapter 7 CCNA1 Chapter 8 CCNA1 Chapter 9 CCNA 1 Final Exam  CCNA3 Chapter 1 CCNA3 Chapter 2 CCNA3 Chapter 3 CCNA3 Chapter 4 CCNA3 Chapter 5 CCNA3 Chapter 6 CCNA3 Chapter 7 CCNA 3 - Final Exam CCNA 3 final test

CCNA2 Chapter 1 CCNA2 Chapter 10 CCNA2 Chapter 11 CCNA2 Chapter 2 CCNA2 Chapter 3 CCNA2 Chapter 4 CCNA2 Chapter 5 CCNA2 Chapter 6 CCNA2 Chapter 7 CCNA2 Chapter 8 CCNA2 Chapter 9 CCNA 2 - Final Exam CCNA4 Chapter 1 CCNA4 Chapter 2 CCNA4 Chapter 3 CCNA4 Chapter 4 CCNA4 Chapter 5 CCNA4 Chapter 6 CCNA4 Chapter 7 CCNA4 Chapter 8 CCNA4 Chapter 9 CCNA 4 - Final Exam

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Cisco CCNA1 Final test version 4.0 (91%)

1.

Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?

0040.8596.DE82

**0060.7320.B826

060.7320.D632

0010.4F74.AC09

0040.8596.DE81

2.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?

hub
switch
**router
wireless access point

3.

The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)

**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.

8.

nslookup command on the PC

Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?

**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100

9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128

10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1

11.

Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM

13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1

15.

A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown

Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable

17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY

18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.

22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)

10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX

23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?

Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)

172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67

25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25

26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash

27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2

28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.

29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier

30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y

31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#

32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access

34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?

3
**5
7
9
11

35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26

36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.

37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host

38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.

39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?

application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.

41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer

44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0

50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)

**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6

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